icar pg veterinary science question bank 2023

icar pg veterinary science question bank2023





icar jrf question bank2023


icar pg veterinary science question bank
icar pg veterinary science question bank












1. Virchow's triad relates to?
a) Infarction b) Embolism c) Thrombosis d) None


2. Family is a?
a) Primary group b)Involuntary group c) Permanent group d) All




3. “Stepping syndrome” in pigs is due the deficiency of?
a) Fe b)Se c)Zn d)Mg



4. An exotic dual purpose sheep breed with “mousy grey face”?
a) Southdown b)Rambouillet c) Merino d)Cheviot



5. Process in which foreign DNA is introduced into another cell with the help
of a viral vector?
a) Conjugation b) Transformation c) Both a&b d) Transduction



6. Time of ovulation in Cattle is?
a) 10-15 hr after end of oestrum
b) 12-24 hr before end of oestrum
c) 1-2 days before end of oestrum
d) 1-2 days after the onset of true oestrum


7. Laying of leathery eggs in chicken is associated with?
a) Raillietina b) Prosthogonimus b) Heterakis d) Davainea




8. Which is an imino acid?
A) Proline b) Tryptophan c) Arginine d) Glycine



9. The CP( %) & ME (Kcal/Kg) on DMB for creep, grower and finisher diets
for pigs as per BIS specification,1986?
a) 23, 2800; 20, 2900; 20, 2600
b) 22, 3500; 20, 3300; 18, 3100
c) 20, 3370; 18, 3170; 16, 3170
d) None of these



10. Which of the following is a spasmolytic agent?
a) Hyoscine b) Vetrabutine c) Dipyrone d) All



11. Recurring tympany is noticed in following condition?
a) TRP b) Diaphragmatic hernia c) Reticulo-omasal stenosis d) All



12. The dose of Dinoprost for the treatment of open pyometra in the bitch?
a) 0.25-0.5mg/Kg b) 0.5-1.0mg/Kg c) 25-50mg/Kg d) 50-100mg/Kg



13. A mating system designed to create a purebred population by mating
successive generations of non-purebred females to purebred sires?
a) Top crossing b) Incrosses c) Incross breeding d) Criss crossing



14. ‘Toxovax’ contains Tachyzoites of ----------strain of Toxoplasma gondii.?
a) P13b) 1B c) 014 d) S48 


15. Spastic and flaccid paralysis of worms are caused by the following drugs
respectively?
a) Phenothiazine & Amitraz b) Oxyclozanide & Livamizole c) Pyrantel
&Piperazine d) Piperazine & Pyrantel





16. The incubation temperature of Yoghurt culture is?
a)41-43oC b) 38-40oC c) 32-33oC d) Lower



17. A disinfectant of choice at FMD outbreak?
a) 2% NaOH b) 4% Na2Co3
 c) Both d) None of these








18. Calf starter starts at-----------of age?
a) 4th day b) 1-2 w c) 2-3w d) 3-4w



19. “Dog sitting position” of Mare and Cow is which presentation?
a) Oblique dorsovertical b) Dorsotransverse c) ventrotransverse d) None




20. Which media can be used for the culture of Tri/Tritrichomonas fetus?
a) Diamond’s medium b) Mannitol salt agar c) Skirrow’s agar d) All




21. “Varocay bodies” are characteristic of which tumour?
a) Meningioma b) Glioma c) Neuroblastoma d) Schwannoma



22. -------------------- has the shortest gestation period of any of the common
laboratory animals?
a) Rat b) Mice c)Hamster d)Guinea pig



23. ( I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 3/3) denotes the dental formula for?
a) Ox b) Horse c) Dog d) Pig



24. Insulin secretion is inhibited by?
a)Diazoxide b)Tolbutamide c)Streptozotocin d) Alloxan


25. The causative agent for Ring worm infection in cattle?
a) Trichophyton verrucossum b) Microsporum gallinae c) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
d) Both a& c




26. A bulletin has------------------page/s?
a) >50 b) 2-12 c) 12-20 d) >20



27. Ivermectin is not effective against flukes and tapeworm infections because?
a) Fumerate reductase is not present in flukes and tapeworms
b) Acetyl choline transmission is not present in flukes and tapeworms
c) Mitochondrial phosphorylation is not present in flukes and tapeworms
d) GABA transmission is not present in flukes and tapeworms




28. “Antinuclear factors” are observed in which immunological disorder?
a) Sjogren’s syndrome
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Erosive polyarthritis
d) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus




29. Median lethal dose value for ‘highly toxic’ poison is?
a) < 1 mg/Kg
b) 1-50 mg/Kg
c) 50-500 mg/Kg
d) 0.5-5 g/Kg




30. Age at which testes descend into the scrotum/testicular descent in Cats is?
a) Midgestation
b) Between last few days of gestation and first few days after birth
c) Last few days of gestation
d) 2-5 days after birth 




31. The tissue adhesive property of Lysine coated slides are due to its ----------
group present in the Lysine.?
a) Imidazole b) Epsilon c) Indole d) Guanidinium




32. Current jelly clot indicates?
a) Sudden death b) Slow death c) Cannot predict d) None



33. Purely ketogenic amino acid?
a) Leucine b) Lysine c) Both a&b d) Tyrosine&Tryptophan


34. Average energy value of 1 kg cow’s milk(Kcal)?
a) 670 b)750 c)1000 d) 500



35. As per BIS specification, floor space requirement for a farrowing sow in
covered area?
a) 6-7 m2
 b) 7-9 m2
 c) 1m2
 d) 3.4m2



36. ‘Restrainer agent’ used in the developer solution for processing the
radiograph?
a) Hydroquinone b) Sodium Sulfite c) Potassium Bromide d) Sodium
carbonate



37. Which strain was developed by crossing Malpura sheep of Rajasthan with
Rambouillet of France?
a)Avikalin b) Gaddi Synthetic c) Hissardale d) Deccani Merino



38. Marthandam project was started in 1921 by?
a) S Hatch b)F L Brayne c)Albert Mayer d) M Gandhiji



39. Which of the following is wrong?
A. Suppurative meningoencephalitis- Listeriosis
B. Oesinophilic meningoencephalitis- Rabies
C. Lymphocytic meningoencephalomyelitis- Hog cholera
D. Acute fibrino endocarditis- BQ a) A b) B c) C d) Both C&D


 40. Vitamin A should be present in the compound cattle feed at the rate of ------
--IU/Kg as per BIS specification (1992)?
a) 5 b) 50 c) 500 d) 5000



41. Best example for Obligatory cyclozoonosis?
a) Hydatidosis b) Taeniasis c) Darling diseae d) Both C&D



42. The people who adopt new innovations earlier than the average number of
the society are known as?
a) Innovators b) laggards c) Early majority d) early adopters



43. Tetrathionate broth is an example for?
a) Enriched media b) Enrichment media c) Sugar media d) Indicator media



44. “Hepatitis cysticercosa” in sheep is a condition associated with?
a) Cysticercus bovis b) Cysticercus cellulosae c) Cysticercus tenuicollis d) Cysticercus
fasciolaris


45. The encapsulated dendritic endings associated with the “light touch”
function is?
a) Meissner’s corpuscles b) Krause’s end bulbs c) Pacinian corpuscles d)
Ruffini’s corpuscles



46. The maintenance requirement of ME in lactating Sow----------
Kcal/KgW0.75/day?
a) 133 b) 119 c) 105 d) 98



47. The bacterial strain used for the production of BCG vaccine in India?
a) Nakayama b) PM-1503-3M c) 17 D d) Danish 1331



48. The earliest time for the following methods of pregnancy diagnosis in Cow
is given below. Identify the right pair. ?

Method

Time

Early pregnancy factor 

3 days

Real time ultrasound

13 days

Pregnancy specific protein B

24 days

Membrane slip 

  33 days

Caruncles/cotyledons

 80 days

Fremitus

85 days 


a) A&B 
b)C&D
 c)E&F
 d)All 


49. ‘Amyloid like tubercles’ are seen in case of Tuberculosis in?
a) Bovines b) Horse c) Dogs d) Pig



50. The drug of choice for coccidiosis in poultry?
A) Sulphaguanidine b) Sulpphaquinoxaline c) Phthalyl sulpha thiazole d)
Sulphamethyl phenazole



51. ‘Strauss test’ is used for the diagnosis of following diseases except?
a) Wooden tongue b) Lumpy jaw c) Glanders d) Brucellosis



52. The stain used for the demonstration of urate crystals?
a) Alcian blue b) Degalantha c) Congo Red d) Best carmine



53. Type of burns where Bullae/Vesicles is present?
a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Type IV



54. Vitamin C is found in which part of the eggs?
a) Albumen b) Yolk c) Both d) Absent in eggs



55. Maize has the lowest concentration of?
a) Calcium b) Niacin c) Both d) None



56. The wounds of more than 6-8 hr duration are considered as------------wound?
a) Contaminated b) Infected c) Surgical d) None


57. Time of MRP(Maternal Recognition of Pregnancy) in Cow?
a)12 days b)12-13 days c)16-17 days d)14-16 days



58. Buttress foot(U shape to V shape conversion) is a sequel of which disease?
a) Bobba bone b) Sore shin c) Navicular disease d) Pyramidal disease



59. Ideally, how much quantity of faeces should be collected in 10% formalin
for laboratory diagnosis of parasitic eggs?
A)2g b)3g c)4g d)5g



60. Rabies virus travels at speed of---------mm/hr through axoplasm in the
nerve root from the site of bite?
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20



61. The steps in extension teaching could be better explained with?
a) AIDCAS b) POSDCORB c) MANAGE d) AIETA



62. Sexing of foetus can be most accurately done in bovines,
ultrasonographically at -------------- days of gestation period?
a) 50-55 b) 60-80 c) 120-140 d) 100-120



63. Derzy's disease/ Goose Plague, a highly contagious disease that affects
goslings is caused by?
a) Birna virus b) Corona virus c) Orthomyxo virus d) Parvo virus



64. Buffalo grass/ Water grass is?
a) Panicum maximum
b) Pennisetum pedicellatum
c) Brachiaria mutica
d) Cenchrus ciliaris



65. BLUP is a method, used for the evaluation of?
a) Cross breeding efficiency b) Exotic breed c) Indigenous breed d) Sire 



66. The signal for apoptosis is coming from?
a) Plasma membrane b) Mitochondria c) Golgi complex d) Nucleus



67. A minimum of ---------------members is essential to start milk producers
cooperative society.?
a) 20-30 b) 30-40 c) 40-50 d) 10



68. Primary amyloidosis is seen in?
a) Chronic inflammatory condition b) Bronchiectasis c) Immunocyte
dyscrasia d) All



69. The structure necessary for the viral attachment and also for inducing
protective immune response in the host in case of rabies is?
a) Glycoprotein
b) Ribonucleo protein
c) Matrix protein
d) Lipoprotein



70. The symptoms that are likely to be noticed in a fracture are?
a) Abnormal mobility b) Crepitus & loss of function c) Deformity d) All



71. Latent infections of Trypanosomiosis in bovines is diagnosed by?
a) Mercuric chloridre test b) Formol gel test c) Thymol turbidity test d)
Stilbamide test



72. Version is the mutational operation to correct ---------------?
a) Presentation b) Position c) Posture d) All



73. Programme planning is a---------------------process?
a) Flexible b) Rigid c) Both a&b d) None of these



74. Female worm of which parasite is found within proventricular glands?
a) Acuria hamulosa b) Capillaria annulata c) Tetramers moheteda d) Acuria spiralis 


75. The sequel of ‘Broken wind/ chronic alveolar emphysema’?
a) Hypertrophy of left auricle
b) Hypertrophy of right auricle
c) Hypertrophy of left ventricle
d) Hypertrophy of right ventricle



76. For prevention of hypocalcemia, dietary cation anion difference of prepartal
diets should be?
 a) Positive b) Negative c) Equal d) None



77. Ram castrated after service is known as?
a) Steer b) Gimmer c) Seggy d) Wedder



78. ‘Laryngeal nerve paralysis’ is observed in horses in which of the following
condition?
a) Arsenic poisoning b) Lead poisoning c) Mercury poisoning d)
Molybdenum poisoning



79. Wing louse of poultry?
a) Menopon gallinae
b)Menacanthus stramineus
c) Lipeurus caponis
d) None of these



80. Examples for Class II anti-arrythmic agents?
a)Lidocaine & Quinidine
b)Propanolol & Tenolol
c) Bretylium & Amiodarone
d) Diltiazem & Nifedipine




81. Cannibalism occurs in poultry when diet is?
a) Protein free b) Protein rich c) Fibre free d) Fibre rich



82. Drugs which reduce gastrointestinal motility / “Non-prokinetic agents” are
a)Atropine & Hyoscyamine b)Atropine c) Diphenoxylate & Loperamide d)
All



83. Which of the following Cheese is made from whey?
a) Sapsago b) Mozarella c) Ricotta d) Cottage


84. Drug of choice for tapeworms in poultry?
a) Praziquantel b)Dibutyltin dilaurate c) Bunamidine d) Niclosamide &
Epsiprantel



85. “Raspberry jam” appearance of spleen is observed in?
a) Swine fever b) Equine infectious anaemia c) Erysipelas d) Amyloidosis



86. Cardiac-specific enzyme/s for acute myocardial injury is?
a) Troponin I b) Troponin T c) Creatin kinase d) Both a&b



87. Mischief is punishable under the section?
a) IPC 428 b) IPC 429 c) IPC 420 d) Both a&b



88. PFA standards for different classes of milk are given below. Which one is
wrong? 

 

Fat % (min)

SNF % (min)

A. Standardized milk

4.5

8.5

B. Recombined milk

3.0

8.5

C. Toned milk

3.0

8.5

D. Double toned milk

1.5 (max.)

8.5


a) A b) B c) C d) D




89. If valvular thrombus is associated with swine erysipelas, then mural
thrombus is associated with which disease condition?
a) BQ b)HS c)Anthrax d)Pink eye



90. A glial cell which is not ectodermal in origin is?
a)Astrocyte b)Oligodendrocyte c)Microglia d) Ependymal cells



91. Red nucleus is seen in?
a) Plasma cell b)Macrophage c)Kupffer cells d) None



92. The Oxygen Dissociation Curve shifts to the right (low affinity for O2
) in the following condition?
a) Increase in hydrogen ion concentration
b) Increase in organic phospates/ 2, 3 -DPG
c) Increase in Temperature
d) All



93. In pox lesions, which stage is involved in the ‘spread’ of virus?
a) Papule b) Pustule c) Macula d) Vesicle



94. Who invented the milking machine in 1878?
a) Carl Gustav de Laval b) Anna Baldwin c) Percy L d) Arthur Leslie Large



95. 1.3% sodium bicarbonate solution is?
a) Isotonic b) Hypertonic c) Hypotonic d) none



96. The '4 Rs' is a basic philosophy of animal ethics that refers to the principles
of replacement, reduction, refinement and------------------?
a) Right Source b) Right Rate c) Right Place d) Rehabilitation


97. IgY is analogous to which Mammalian Ig-----?
a) Ig M b) IgG c) IgE d) Both b&c



98. Calcium and phosphorus specification (per cent by mass, min.) of broiler
finisher diet as per BIS?
A) 3.0&0.5 b) 1.2&0.5 c) 1&0.5 d) 3.0 &0.6



99. To enable 10 million rural milk producer’s families to build a viable, self
sustaining diary industry was the objective of --------------?
a) OF-III b) OF-II c) OF-I d) IRDP



100. ‘Marked cerebellar hypoplasia’ is associated with which viral agent?
a) Parvo virus b) BVD-MD virus c) Both a&b d) None 





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Answer Key

1 c 

2 d

3 d

4 a

5 d

6 a

7 b

8 a

9 c 

10 d

11 b

12 a

13 a

14 d

15 c

16 a

17 c

18 b

19 d

20 a

21 d

22 c

23 d

24 a

25 d

26 c

 27 d

28 d

29 b

30 d

31 b

32 a

33 a

34 a

 35 b

36 c

37 a

38 a

39 b

40 d

41 b

 42 c

 43 b

44 c

45 a

46 c

47 d

48 d

49 d

50 b

51 b

 52 b

53 b

 54 d

55 c

 56 b

 57 c

58 d

59 d

60 b

61 a

62 b

63 d

64 c

 65 d

66 d

67 c

68 c

69 a

70 d

71 d

72 a

73 c

74 c

75 d

76 b

 77 c

 78 b

79 c

80 b

81 c

82 d

83 c

84 b

85 b

86 d

87 d

88 d

 89 a

 90 c

91 d

92 d

93 d

94 b

95 a

96 d

97 d

98 a

99 b

100 c 


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