Veterinary BIOTECHNOLOGY question bank-1

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Veterinary BIOTECHNOLOGY

Part-1

• Chemical synthesis of DNA was devised by- H. G. Khorana

• Most commonly used type of restriction enzymes are of- Type II

• Major complement component present in serum is- C3

• PCR technique was developed by – Kary. B. Mullis

• Major DNA polymerase involved in replication in prokaryotes is- DNAP III

• Most abundant polysaccharide among living system- Cellulose

• Recombinant DNA technology developed by – Cohen and Boyer

• No: of assymetrical carbon atoms in Ribulose- 2

• Semi-conservative replication of DNA was proved by- Meselson and Stahl

• Protein part of an enzyme is termed as- Apoenzyme

• During replication, the enzyme that prevents torsion by breaking DNA

strands- Topoisomerase.

• Eukaryotic DNAP for mitochondrial DNA replication is- DNAP-gamma.

• Monoclonal antibody technique developed by- Kohler and Milstein

• The most stable form of DNA and RNA seen under physiological condition isB-DNA and A-RNA respectively

• Type II restriction enzymes were discovered by – Hamilton Smith (1970)

• In prokaryotes, the DNA polymerase having 5’-3’ exonuclease activityDNAP I.

• Concept of Transformation was proved by- Griffith

• During replication of DNA the separation of double strands is done byHelicases.

• DNA replication takes place from 5’-3’ direction.

• Cracking of genetic code was performed by- Nirenberg and Mathaei.

• Nucleotide sequence within a gene that is transcribed into RNA but excised

before translation in called- Introns.

• Jumping genes or transposons were first reported by – Barbara McClintock.

• One gene-One Enzyme hypothesis was proposed by- Beadle and Tatum.

• Operon concept was proposed by- Jacob and Monod.

• The major form of super coiling found in chromatin is- Solenoidal.

• Phenomenon of Conjugation was put forth by- Lederberg and Tatum.

• Histones are rich in amino acids arginine and lysine.

• Wobble hypothesis was proposed by- Francis Crick

• Bacterial DNA is compacted in a structure called- Nucleoid.

• Transfer RNA is produced by - RNApolymerase III.

• Chemical method of DNA sequencing was developed by- Maxam and Gilbert.

• ‘Molecular beacons’ are probes used in detection system for- Real Time PCR.

• Reverse transcriptase was first discovered by- Temin and Baltimore.

• The enzyme employed for amplification of specific genes in PCR technique isTaq DNA polymerase.

• In Agarose gel electrophoresis, the movement of proteins is based onCharge:Mass ratio.

• Phenomenon of transduction was proposed by- Zinder and Lederberg.

• The medium used for selecting myeloma cells in hybridoma technology isHAT medium.

• Amino acid that does not exhibit optical activity is- Glycine.

• In nucleotides, both types of pentoses are in beta-furanose form.

• In alkaline conditions, RNA is rapidly hydrolyzed due to the presence of 2’-

OH group.

• Hinge region of IgG is rich in - Proline.

• Imidazole group is present in the amino acid- Histidine.

• In SDS-PAGE, the movement of proteins is based on- Mass.

• Separation of proteins in iso-electric focusing is based on- Isoelectric point of

the particular protein.

• The reagent developed by Sanger to identify the amino terminal amino acid is1-fluoro-2,4- Dinitrobenzene.

• ‘Beta turn’ is a secondary structure of protein.

• The most abundant amino acid present in collagen is- Glycine.

• Hershey and Chase first reported that DNA is the genetic material.

• In reversible competitive inhibition of an enzymatic reaction, Vmax remains

same but Km increases.

• Co-factor for Glutathione peroxidase is – Selenium.

• In Agarose gel electrophoresis the DNA is visualized using- Ethidium

bromide.

• Megaloblastic anemia often occurs due to deficiency of -Folic acid.

• The prosthetic group present in amino transferases is- Pyridoxal phosphate.

• Reverse transcriptases are present in – Retroviruses and Hepadna viruses.

• A diploid cell line of human origin is- HeLa.

• Vero cell lines are obtained from -African green monkey.

• Cell lines are commonly preserved in- Liquid Nitrogen.

• Viruses commonly used for production of vector vaccines are- Fowl pox virus,

Retrovirus and Herpesvirus.

• Size of a prokaryotic cell generally ranges from- 1-10 microns.

Part-2

1) Urey and Miller created the primitive environment in the Spark chamber and used

Hydrogen, Ammonia, Methane and Water vapor to simulate the chemical origin of life. The

surprising molecule they obtained after the experiment was

A.Proteins

B. Lipids

C. Amino acids

D. Polysaccharides

2) The most accepted theory of origin of life is

A. Special creation theory

B. Theory of abiogenesis

C. Oparin haldane theory

D. Theory of spontaneous generation.

3) In mammalian cells rRNA is produced mainly in the

(A) Endoplasmic reticulum

(B) Ribosome

(D) Nucleus.

4) HDL is synthesized and secreted from

(A) Pancreas

(B) Liver

(D) Muscle

5) Virus-mediated transfer of cellular genetic material from one bacterial cell to another by

means of virus particles is called:

(A) Transduction

(B) transposition

(D) transfection

6) The only antibody that crosses placenta is

A) Inga

B). IgD

C). IgG

D). IgE

7) Mitochondrial DNA is

(A) Circular double stranded

(B) Circular single stranded

D) None of these.

8) Mendel used the following term to express inheritance of character…

A) DNA

B) Gene

C) Factor

D) chromosome.

9) The terminal sugar present on RBC in blood group ‘’ A’’ is…

A) Galaxies

B) Galactosamine

C) Glucose

D) Fructose.

10) A molecular tool used in assessing genetic diversity among animals is

A) allonym pattern.

B) DNA fingerprinting.

C)tryptic peptide map of actin

D) DNA Footprinting.

11) Nodes of Ranvier are associated with

A)Myelinated neuron

B) Non myelinated neuron

C) Lateral ventricle

D). Synapses

12) Spliceosomes are involved in

A). cutting of DNA in genetic engineering

B). splitting of Pre mRNA

C). formation of Nucleosomes

D). Prokaryotic DNA synthesis

13) ELISA is used to detect HIV but the confirmation of HIV infection is done through

A). Southern blotting

B). Western blotting

C). Eastern blotting

D) DNA finger printing

14) In nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy, the absorption spectra result by

the absorption of one of the following electromagnetic radiation by the spinning nucleus:

(A) ultraviolet waves

(B) infrared waves

(D) microwaves.

15) ) Cystic fibrosis is due to:

(A) defective chloride channel

(B) defective LDL receptor

(D) increased dopamine.

16) When flagella are distributed all around a bacterial cell, the arrangement is called

A)polar

B) random

C) peritrichous

D) encapsulated.

17) The fact that viruses are obligate intracellular parasites means that they require a _____

for reproduction.

A) culture dish

B) host cell

C) phenol red broth

D) secondary virus.

18) Organisms that ferment glucose may produce any of the following end products except

A) lactic acid

B) propionic acid

C) alcohol

D) oxygen.

19) Milk lack which of the following vitamins?

(A) Vitamin C

(B) Vitamin A

D) Vitamin K.

20) The percentage of water contained in the body of an individual is less because of

(A) High fat content

(B) Low fat content

(D) Low protein content

21) Which one of the following enzymes is obtained from Thermophilus aquaticus

bacterium which is heat stable and used in PCR at high temperature .

A)DNA polymerase III

B). Endonuclease

C). Taq polymerase

D). DNA gyrase

22) Carbonic anhydrase, the fastest enzyme in the living system is present in

A). Pancreatic juice

B). Hepatic cells

C). RBC

D). Neuroglia.

23) Genes that are located at identical loci of homologous chromosomes are called:

(A) alleles

(B) polygenes

(D) pseudogenes.

24) Which of the following do not obey the “ Cell Theory”

A) Viruses

B) Bacteria

C) Eukaryotic cell

D) None of the above

25) ) To determine the physical distance between gene on chromosome the unit is…

A)Centi meter.

B)Centi Morgan

C) Mili meter.

D) Kilo meter.

26) One of the following striking example of Natural selection is

A. Neck of giraffe

B. Wing of Bat

C. Color of Peppered moth

D. Tail of Rat

27) Duct of Bellini is associated with

A)Spleen

B). Liver

C).Salivary glands

D). Kidney.

28) Which of the following factors will not allow Hardy- Weinberg principle to operate

A). Inbreeding

B). Mutation

C). Gene pool

D). Selection

29) One of the following cell can stimulate secondary immune response in the body

followed by an infection

A)T-cell

B). B-cell

C). Memory cell

D). Stem cell.

30) Which of the following will be best choice to study the plasma membrane

A) R.B.C

B) Fat cell

C ) Neuron

D) Kidney cell

31) HAT selection is based on:

(A) TK and HPRT genes

(B) APRT and ATK genes

(D) HAT gene.

32)Blood grouping is an example of…

A)Incomplete dominance

B)Co-dominance

C)recessive character

D)None of the abovE

33) In Drosophila melanogaster, sex is determined by:

(A) X and Y chromosomes

(B) X/A ratio

(D) Z and W chromosomes

34) On which of the following chromosomes are most of the sex-linked traits carried ?

A)13

B) 18

C)Y

D)X.

35 ) Binding of Mannose 6- P to protein lead to its localization to

(A) Lysosome

(B) Golgi body

(D) Nucleus

36) Which of the following is Ca-binding protein

(A) Actin

(B) Myosin

(D) Tropomyosin.

37) Which of the following shows sporulation along with social behaviors?

(A) Archebacteria

(B) Bacillus

(D) Eubacteria

38) If a part of bacterial genome is doubled it is called as

(A) Amphidiploid

(B) Merodiploid

(D) Polyploid

39) Which organelle is involved in conversion of fat to carbohydrate in seeds.

(A) Glyoxysomes

(B) Peroxisomes

(D) Mitochondria

40) Role of carrier between PSII & PSI

(A) Carries electron from P680 to P700 (B) Carries electron from P700 to P680

Answer Key :

1-C 5- A 9-B 13-B 17- B 21- C 25- B 29- C 33- B 37-B

2-C 6- C 10-B 14- C 18- D 22- C 26- C 30- A 34- D 38-B

3-C 7- A 11- A 15-A 19- A 23- A 27- D 31- A 35- A 39-A

4-B 8- C 12-B 16- C 20- A 24- A 28-B 32-B 36-C 40-A

Part-3

Environmental Biotechnology

1) Environmental Biotechnology involves

A)Use of microbes to clean up the environment

B)Bioremediation.

C)the study of benefits and hazards associated with GMMs

D) All of these.

2)which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean up oil spills

A)Bacillus subtilis

B)Pseudomonas putida.

C)Pseudomonas denitrificans

D)Bacillus denitrificans.

3)Which of the following is/are example(s) of conventional source of energy.

A)Fossil fuels

B)Solar energy.

C)Tidal energy

D)all of the above.

4)Which of the following is/are example(s) of Non-conventional source of energy.

A)Solar energy.

B)Tidal energy.

C)Geothermal energy.

D)All of the above.

5)The unfavorable alteration of environment due to human activities is termed as

A)Ecological desturbance.

B)Catastroph.

C)Ecological degradation.

D)Pollution.

6) Which of the following is major cause of a pollution.

A)Plants

B)bacterial spore.

C)Fungi

D)Hydrocarbon gaseous.

7)Minamata disease was caused bypollution of water by

A)Mercury

B)Lead.

C)Tin

D)Methyl iso cyanide.

8)BOD stands for

A)Biotic oxidation demand

B)Biological oxidation demand.

C)Biological oxygen demand

D)Biochemical oxygen demand

9)Air pollution is caused by

A)Loud speaker

B)Sewage

C)Smoke

D)None of the above.

10)Air is composed of gases, water vapours and

A)Dust particles

B) Rainfall

C)Snowfall

D)light.

11)To reduce the water pollution which of the following genetically modified organism will

be best choice…

A)Plant

B) Animal

C)Bacteria

D)None of the above.

12)Among the following which is the most hazardous UV radiation..

A)UV-A

B) UV-B

C)UV-C

D) UV-D.

13)To propagate the radio frequency radiation for longer distance which will be better

choice

A)Selection of radiation of shorter wavelength

B) Selection of radiation of longer wavelength.

C)Both A and B

D)None of the above.

14)Which of the following will be best fuel

A)That burn yellow in color

B)That burn green in color

C)That burn black in color.

D)That burn blue in color.

15)which of the following is/are incorrect statement…

A)Chinese bioreactor for biogas production will produce good quality of biogas in large

amount.

B) Chinese bioreactor for biogas production will produce good quality of manure.

C)Indian bioreactor for biogas production will produce good quality of biogas in large

amount.

D) Indian bioreactor for biogas production will produce less quality of manure in less

amount.

16) To design the gene for production of wool protein it should possess maximum codon

coding for

A)Argenin

B)Histidine

C)Proline

D)Cystein.

17) Chief source of energy in environment is

(A) fire

(B) moon

(D) stars

18) Which of the following is /are major consumer items

A) Food

B)Fuels

C)Fibres

D)All of the above.

19)To reduce the the heavy metal concentration from heavy metal polluted area it is best to

select heavy metal resistant bacteria from

A) oil spilling area

B)Heavy metalpolluted area

C)Area which do not contain heavy metal

D)Area which do not contain oil.

20) Phytoremediation is the term related with remediation by….

A) Bacteria

B)Animal

C)Plant

D)None of the above.

21) Acid rain is produce due to…

A) Oxides of nitrogen

B)Oxides of sulphur

C)Both A and B

D)none of the above.

22) Global warming is caused due to…

A) Decrease in co2 conc.

B) increase in co2 conc.

C) decrease in So2 conc.

D) Increase in No2 conc.

23) The color of leave is green, it indicate leaves…

A) Absorbs green light

B) Reflects green light

C)Both A and B.

D)None of the above.

24) Plant Biomass and wood is /are example(s) of…

A) Renewable source of energy.

B) Non renewable source of energy.

C) Both A and B.

D) None of the above.

25) In biogas, 96% concentration is of…

A) Carbon dioxide

B)hydrogen sulphide

C)carbon monoxide.

D)Methane.

26) which of the following statement is /are correct…

A)Methanogens are anaerobes.

B) Methanogens are psychrophilic.

C) Methanogens are mesophilic.

D) Both A and B.

27) Ozone layer is found in…

A)trophposphere.

B)stratosphere

C) thermosphere

D)ionosphere

28)The overall result of global warming is/ are

A)increase in temperature

B)Melting of ice

C)Rise in level of sea.

D)All of the above.

29)Formation of fossil fuels require…

A)one day

B)one week

C) One month

D)several thousand years.

30) It is best to use biogas because…

A)It is smokeless

B)when burn produce blue color of flame

c)It is cheap source of energy. D) All of the above.

Answer key

1 D 4 D 7 A 10 A 13 B 16 D 19 B 22 B 25 D 28 D 2 B 5 D 8 C 11 C 14 D 17 C 20 C 23 B 26 D 29 D 3 A 6 D 9 C 12 C 15 A 18 D 21 C 24 C 27 B 30 D

Part-4

Basics of Gene structure and function

Which of the following is correctly matched
(a) Johannsen———- linkage
(b) Mendel————– gene
(c) Garrod————– father of human genetics
(d) Morgan————- factor
Term biotechnology was coined by
(a) Karl Erkey
(b) Friedrich Miescher
(c) Altmam
(d) A.E.Garrod
The transforming factor in living cells was first of all discovered by
(a) Avery, Macleod and McMarty
(b) Griffith
(c) Hershey and chase
(d) Emil Fischer
Which among the following showed isotopically (32P and 35S) DNA to be genetic material using bacteriophages
(a) Hershey and chase
(b) Emil Fischer
(c) A.E.Garrod
(d) Both a and b
Which of the following is correctly matched
(a) Monoclonal antibodies————-Fire and Mello
(b) RNA interference——————-Temin and Baltimore
(c) Reverse transcription—————kohler and Milstein
(d) RT PCR——————————-SYBER green
PCR works on the principle of
(a) Peltier effect
(b) Thompson effect
(c) Both
(d) None
Gene is a
(a) Segment of DNA that controls protein synthesis
(b) Segment of DNA that controls RNA synthesis
(c) Functional segment of DNA
(d) None of the above
Which of the following is correctly matched
(a) Beadle and tatum——– non-correlation between genome size and complexity
(b) C-value—————— Amount of DNA in genome
(c) C-value paradox———- transposons
(d) McClintock—————— one gene-one peptide hypothesis
Which technique is used to detect introns in eukaryotic genome
(a) Cherenkov light technique
(b) Autoradiography
(c) Pyrosequencing
(d) R-loop technique
New genes can be acquired by an organism by which method
(a) By duplication and divergence of already existing genes
(b) Gene fission and fusion
(c) By lateral gene transfer
(d) All the above
New genes can originate de novo from non-coding region of DNA in which of the following
(a) Maize
(b) Trypanosoma
(c) Tetrahymena
(d) Drosophila
Which of the following is an example of single multigene family
(a) Hemoglobin genes
(b) r-RNA genes
(c) Myoglobin genes
(d) None of the above
Which of the following is true about paralogous genes
(a) Have got sequences similarities
(b) Arise due to duplication and divergence
(c) Present in same organisms
(d) All of the above
Orthologous genes in animals arise due to
(a) Speciation
(b) Convergence
(c) Divergence
(d) Both a and c
Which of the following is true about pseudogenes
(a) Functional variants of normal genes
(b) Indicate the changing nature of genome
(c) depend on the rate of gene duplication and loss
(d) All of the above
Globin pseudogenes are
(a) Conventional or non- processed
(b) Processed
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Which of the following is not true about processed pseudogenes
(a) Originates through retrotransposition
(b) Lack introns and a promotor region
(c) Contain polyguanylate signal and are flanked by direct repeats
(d) All above are true
Alphoid DNA is
(a) Alpha helical form of DNA
(b) Centromeric DNA sequence in humans
(c) Primitive DNA type
(d) Promiscuous DNA
Which of the following is not true about replication dependent histones
(a) Transcripts lack poly A tail
(b) Synthesized during s-phase
(c) H1 is having low molecular weight
(d) H4 is most conserved
Replication dependent histones are synthesized during which phase
(a) G1 phase
(b) S phase
(c) G2 phase
(d) M phase
Which of the following is replication independent histone
(a) H1º
(b) H1t
(c) H5
(d) H3.3
Among replication dependent histones which is having high molecular weight
(a) H1
(b) H3
(c) H4
(d) H2B
Among replication dependent histones which are most conserved
(a) H1, H2B
(b) H3, H4
(c) H1, H2A
(d) H4,H1
Nucleosome as structural unit of chromosome was described by
(a) R. Korenberg
(b) Johanssen
(c) Benzer
(d) Watson and Crick
Which of the following is an acidic protein
(a) H1º
(b) H1t
(c) Kornberg’s enzyme
(d) H2A
Which of the following is correctly matched
(a) Mononucleosomes——–147 bp
(b) Trimmed nucleosomes—–165 bp
(c) Core particles—————50-70 bp
(d) Linker DNA—————- 200 bp
Which of the following is called bond of life
(a) Ionic bond
(b) Covalent bond
(c) wander wall’s interactions
(d) Hydrogen bond
Which of the following is not true about histone chaperones
(a) Have less affinity for histones
(b) Present in nucleoplasm
(c) They are acidic proteins
(d) Facilitate the delivery of histones
The organization of 30nm fibre during chromosome formation can be understood by
(a) Solenoid model
(b) Zigzag model
(c) Scaffold model
(d) Both a and b
Acetylation of histones may bring which change
(a) Increase gene expression
(b) Decrease gene expression
(c) Remain static
(d) Does not affect
Which amino acid residue is involved during histone acetylation
(a) Arginine
(b) Serine
(c) Threonine
(d) Lysine
Bromodomain is
(a) Brominated amino acid residues of proteins
(b) Highly variable region of immunoglobin
(c) Dock site on acetylated lysines in histones
(d) Conserved domains of oligomeric proteins
Methylation of histones may bring which change
(a) Increase gene expression
(b) decrease gene expression
(c) may either increase or decrease
(d) Remain static
Chromodomain is
(a) Coloured domain of oligomeric protein
(b) Highly variable region of immunoglobin
(c) Dock site on methylated amino acid residues in histones
(d) Conserved domains of oligomeric proteins
Which amino acid residues are involved during histone methylation
(a) Lysine, threonine
(b) Glutamate, arginine
(c) Lysine, arginine
(d) Serine, threonine
Histone methylation plays a fundamental role in
(a) Heterochromatin formation
(b) X-chromosome inactivation
(c) Genome imprinting
(d) All of the above
Which structural form of DNA is left-handed
(a) B-DNA
(b) Z-DNA
(c) A-DNA
(d) H-DNA
Which DNA form exists under physiological conditions
(a) A-DNA
(b) Z-DNA
(c) H-DNA
(d) B-DNA
A linear segment of DNA is about 975 kD in weight. How many nucleotides are in it and what is its length respectively
(a) 3000, 1020 nm
(b) 1000, 500nm
(c) 1500, 1000nm
(d) 1000, 1200nm
There are 103 nucleotides in a gene having one intron of 3.4nm and a non-stop codon. How many amino acid residues will be in a peptide on translation
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 60
The lambda-max for DNA and RNA falls at
(a) 260nm
(b) 280nm
(c) 250nm
(d) 300nm

ANSWERS
1.(c) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(a) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11.(d) 12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(d) 16.(a) 17.(c) 18.(b) 19.(c) 20.(b) 21.(d ) 22.(a ) 23.(b) 24.(a ) 25.( c) 26.(b ) 27.(d) 28.(a ) 29.(d ) 30.(a ) 31.(d ) 32.(c ) 33.(c ) 34.(c) 35.(c) 36.(d) 37.(b) 38.(d) 39.(a) 40.(a) 41.(a)

Part-5

DNA replication and transcription

Which of the following is not related to okazaki fragments
(a) Lagging strand
(b) DNA polymerase III
(c) DNA ligase
(d) DNA gyrase
Which of the following is true about origin of replication
(a) It is a trans-acting site
(b) It is called autonomously repeated sequence in yeast
(c) It is GC-rich stretch
(d) OriC in prokaryotes is about 500bp long
Circular DNA replication can be explained by which model
(a) Theta replication model
(b) Sigma replication model
(c) Both
(d) None
Which of the following is not a nuclease
(a) dnaB
(b) HindIII
(c) Topoisomerase
(d) Maturase
Which is the only prokaryotic DNA polymerase having 5′-3′ exonuclease activity
(a) DNA polymerase I
(b) DNA polymerase II
(c) DNA polymerase III
(d) DNA polymerase IV
Which class of antibiotics inhibit the activity of DNA gyrase
(a) Third generation cephalosporins
(b) Aminoglycosides
(c) Sulphonomides
(d) Fluoroquinolones
Which of the following is true about aphidicolin
(a) It is a mutagen
(b) Tetracyclic diterpenoid
(c) Inhibitor of mammalian nuclear DNA polymerase
(d) Both b and c
In eukaryotes RNA primers are removed by
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) RNase E
(c) RNase H
(d) Flap endonuclease
DNA replication in eukaryotes is
(a) Semi-consevative
(b) Semi-discontinuous
(c) Dispersive
(d) Both a and b
Which of the following is true about replication
(a) The velocity of nucleotide addition per fork is higher in prokaryotes than eukaryotes
(b) DNA polymerase V is error prone polymerase
(c) DNA polymerase III is having high processivity
(d) All of the following
Which of the following eukaryotic DNA polymerases is correctly matched
(a) DNA polymerase α———– repair mechanism
(b) DNA polymerase β——— leading strand replication
(c) DNA polymerase γ———– mitochondrial DNA replication
(d) DNA polymerase δ———- lagging strand replication
Which of the following polymerase is used for high fidelity DNA synthesis
(a) Taq polymerase
(b) Pfu polymerase
(c) Polymerase V
(d) Both a and b
Which of the following is direct mutation repair in DNA
(a) Pyrimidine dimers
(b) O6-methylguanosine
(c) Both
(d) None
Which of the following is not correct about SOS response in E. Coli
(a) Occurs due to severe DNA damage
(b) RecA protein participates in it
(c) It is responsible for error prone replication
(d) Occurs due to high lactose in media
Which among the following is cofactor for RNA polymerase
(a) Zn2+
(b) Mg2 +
(c) Fe2+
(d) Both a and b
Which of the following is not true about RNA polymerase
(a) σ factor helps in promotor recognition
(b) β and β’ occur in catalytic core
(c) working direction is 5′-3′
(d) it requires primer for activity
Which of the following sigma factor is correctly matched with its function
(a) σ54————-oxidative and osmotic response
(b) σ32———– nitrogen assimilation
(c) σ28———— flagellar synthesis
(d) σ38————- heat shock response
Which among the following is adenosine analog that blocks RNA synthesis
(a) Cordycepin
(b) Ricin
(c) Rifampicin
(d) 5-bromouracil
Which of the following is not true about Rho protein
(a) It is an ATP- dependent hexamer
(b) It binds to RNA at rut sequence
(c) It disrupts nascent RNA-DNA complex
(d) It is an endonuclease
Which eukaryotic RNA polymerase is resistant to ɑ-amanitin
(a) RNA pol. I
(b) RNA pol. II
(c) RNA pol. III
(d) All of the following
Which among the following is false
(a) miRNA is synthesized by RNA pol. II
(b) mitochondrial RNA polymerase is encoded by nuclear genes
(c) chloroplast RNA polymerase is encoded by both nuclear and chloroplast genes
(d) the DNA strand from which transcription occurs is called (+) strand
Which reaction is used for removal of introns
(a) Methylation
(b) Acetylation
(c) Trans-esterification
(d) O-glycosylation
Which of the following is true about cajal bodies
(a) located within nucleus
(b) Centres of post-transcriptional modification of SnRNAs and snRNPs
(c) Migrate between nucleoplasm and cytoplasm
(d) Both a and b
Regulated alternate splicing is used for sex determination in
(a) C. elegans
(b) Drosophila spp.
(c) Trypanosoma spp.
(d) Babesia spp.
In trans-splicing the removed introns form which type of structure
(a) T-shaped
(b) X-shaped
(c) Y-shaped
(d) I-shaped
Trans-splicing has been reported in
(a) Babesia
(b) Trypanosoma
(c) Thieleria
(d) Anaplasma
Which of the following does not occur in 5′-3′ direction
(a) RNA editing
(b) m-RNA degradation
(c) m-RNA surveillance
(d) both a and b
which of the following is true about Group 1 introns
(a) found in transcripts of pre-rRNA genes and some organelle genes
(b) act as ribozymes
(c) found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(d) All of the following
Which among the following is false
(a) Group 1 introns were discovered first of all in Tetrahymena thermophile
(b) Group 2 introns are found in transcripts of some organelle genes
(c) Both group1 and 2 introns act as ribozymes
(d) They require ATP for splicing
Which of the following is not true about riboswitches
(a) Elements within mRNA that bind to ligands and regulate mRNA expression
(b) Cis-acting regulatory elements
(c) Most often located at 5′ UTR
(d) Tri-domanic structure
Which of the following is dsRNA
(a) tRNA
(b) miRNA
(c) hnRNA
(d) all of the above
The endonucleases found in RNA-induced silencing complex(RISC) are called
(a) Aconitase
(b) Dicer
(c) Drosha
(d) Argonaute
Which of the following is a component of microprocessor complex during miRNA synthesis
(a) Drosha
(b) Pasha
(c) DGCR8
(d) All of the following
Pre-miRNA derived from introns are called
(a) Pasha
(b) Mitons
(c) Specialized introns
(d) Mirtrons
Which of the following is an initiator codon
(a) AUG
(b) GUG
(c) UUG
(d) All of the above
Which of the following was first codon to be discovered
(a) UUU
(b) AUG
(c) GUG
(d) AAA
The secondary structure of tRNA looks like__ while its 3-D structure looks like
(a) Clover leaf, inverted-L
(b) L-shaped, clover leaf
(c) X-shaped, Y-shaped
(d) None of the above
Which of the following rRNA act as peptidyl transferases in prokaryotes and eukaryotes respectively
(a) 16S,18S
(b) 16S,28S
(c) 23,5S
(d) 23S,28S
Which of the following is not true about shine-dalgarno sequence
(a) Polypurine sequence located upstream of initiator codon
(b) Complementary to 3′ end of 16S rRNA
(c) Helps in attachment of smaller subunit with mRNA
(d) Conserved sequence found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes
Selection of initiator codon in eukaryotes is facilitated by surrounding nucleotides called
(a) preceding sequence
(b) Kozak sequence
(c) Trailer sequence
(d) shine-dalgarno sequence
Which enzyme is used in chemical proof reading of proteins
(a) Peptidyl transferase
(b) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
(c) Pronase
(d) Both a and b
Cap snatching mechanism of host mRNA is associated with which virus
(a) Lentivirus
(b) Retroviruse
(c) Myxoviruse
(d) Influenza virus
Which of the following binds to 50S subunit and inhibits protein synthesis
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Tetracycline
(d) Cyclohexidine
Diptheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis in eukaryotes by inactivating
(a) 60S subunit
(b) 40S subunit
(c) eEF2
(d) eEF1
In protein splicing the removed residues are called
(a) Inteins
(b) Exteins
(c) Integreins
(d) Zymogen
Protein synthesis on ribosomes occurs from
(a) N-terminal to C-terminal
(b) C-terminal to N-terminal
(c) Both
(d) None
Which of the following is used for detection of post-transcriptional modification of proteins
(a) Western bloating
(b) Northern bloating
(c) Southern bloating
(d) Eastern bloating
IPTG is an
(a) Inducer
(b) Repressor
(c) Both
(d) None
Which of the following is not true about transposons
(a) Frequency of movement varies from 10-7to 10-2
(b) Movement is independent of donor and recipient site
(c) Sometimes called selfish DNA
(d) They were first of all found in drosophila
Which of the following uses replicative transposition to evade host immune system
(a) Trypanosoma brucei
(b) Trypanosoma cruzi
(c) Trypanosoma evansi
(d) Babesia bovis
Ty elements of yeast are examples of
(a) Class I transposons
(b) Class II transposons
(c) retroposons
(d) retrotransposons
which of the following is not true about retrotransposons
(a) retrovirus like elements
(b) have gag and pol genes but lack env genes
(c) Ty elements and copia elements are retrotransposons
(d) Found in prokaryotes only
ANSWERS
1.(d) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(a) 6.(d) 7.(d) 8.(c) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(d) 15.(d) 16.(d) 17.(c) 18.(a) 19.(d) 20.(a) 21.(d ) 22.(c ) 23.(d ) 24.(b ) 25.( c) 26.(b ) 27.(d ) 28.(d ) 29.(d ) 30.(d ) 31.(b ) 32.(d ) 33.(d ) 34.(d ) 35.(d) 36.(a) 37.(a) 38.(d) 39.(d) 40.(b) 41.(b) 42.(d ) 43.( b) 44.(c ) 45.(a) 46.(a) 47.(d) 48.(a) 49.(d) 50.(a) 51.(d) 52.(d)

Part-6

Recombinant DNA technology

Which of the following is not correct about type II restriction enzymes
(a) Cut within or close to recognition sequence
(b) Require Mg2+ as cofactor
(c) Have separate endonuclease and methylase activities
(d) Recognize palindromic sequences and produce only blunt ends
Which was the first restriction enzyme to be discovered
(a) AluI
(b) HinfI
(c) HindII
(d) HindIII
Restriction enzymes were isolated for the first time from which bacteria
(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Haemophilus Influenzae
(c) Thermitis aquatics
(d) Bacillus amyloliquefaciens
Which of the following is the target sequence for EcoRI
(a) 5’GAATTC3′ 3’CTTAAG5′
(b) 5’GGATCC3′ 3’CCTAGG5′
(c) 5’GGCC3′ 3’CCGG5′
(d) 5’TCGA3′ 3’AGCT5′
First genetically engineered product licensed for human use was
(a) Somatotropin
(b) Β-endorphins
(c) Thyrotropin
(d) Humalin
First genetically engineered vaccine licensed for human use
(a) Polio vaccine
(b) Hepatitis B vaccine
(c) Rabies vaccine
(d) BCG vaccine
Star activity is associated with which enzyme
(a) DNA polymerase I
(b) DNA polymerase II
(c) DNA polymerase III
(d) Type II restriction endonucleases
Which of the following enzyme prevents recircularization of plasmid vectors
(a) Alkaline phosphatases
(b) T4 ligase
(c) Polynuleotide kinase
(d) Terminal deoxyribonucleotidyl transferase
Which of the following is not desirable characteristic of a vector
(a) Ability to carry foreign DNA
(b) Suitable selectable marker
(c) Easy to isolate and purify
(d) Narrow host range
Which of the following is genetically engineered plasmid
(a) pUC8
(b) TOL
(c) RP4
(d) pBR322
Which of the following is true about pBR322
(a) Most popular plasmid with 4362 bp
(b) Bears replication module of E.coli
(c) It has ampicillin and tetracycline resistant genes
(d) All of the above
Which of the following is not true about shuttle vectors
(a) Constructed by rDNA technology
(b) YEP is an E. coli base shuttle vector
(c) Contain two origin of replications
(d) Propagate only in prokaryotes
Bacteriophages are better cloning vectors than plasmids due to
(a) More efficient for large DNA fragments
(b) Easy screening
(c) Efficient for smaller fragments
(d) Both a and b
Which of following vectors have cohesive ends called cos site
(a) Phage M13
(b) λ phage vectors
(c) YAC
(d) BAC
λ phage vectors are constructed by deleting which part of λ phage genome
(a) Terminal lysogenic part
(b) Middle lysogenic part
(c) Terminal lytic part
(d) Middle lytic part
Which of following vector is suitable for cloning ssDNA
(a) Phage M13
(b) λ phage vectors
(c) YAC
(d) BAC
Which of the following vectors is correctly matched according to correct base pairs they can clone
(a) Plasmid—————45kb
(b) Bacteriophage——24kb
(c) Cosmid————-100kb
(d) YAC—————-10kb

ANSWERS
1.(d) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11.(d) 12.(d) 13.(d) 14.(b) 15.(b) 16.(a) 17.(b)

Part-7

Animal Cell Culture

The foundation for the development of cell culture technique was laid by
(a) Roux
(b) Arnold
(c) Ross
(d) Harrison
Who is regarded as the father of tissue culture
(a) Harrison
(b) Arnold
(c) Ross
(d) Roux
The limited replicative capacity of human cells in culture is called
(a) Hayflick effect
(b) Brownian effect
(c) Contact inhibition
(d) None of the above
HAT medium used for the selection of fused hybrid cells in hybridoma culture was introduced by
(a) Littlefield and Miller
(b) Kohler and Milstein
(c) Frish and Jentoft
(d) Eagle and Karl
Which of the following is HGPRT+ and survives in HAT medium
(a) B cells
(b) Myeloma cells
(c) Hybrid cells
(d) Both a and c
Use of trypsin to free cells from tissue matrix for cell culture was described by
(a) Jolly and Koch
(b) Beebe and Ewing
(c) Sims and Stillman
(d) Gottieb Maberland
Cells used in feeder layer
(a) Should have ability to divide
(b) Have ability to metabolize
(c) These properties are obtained by exposing cells to irradiation
(d) All of the above
Cell culture technique became simpler only after advent of
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Trypsin
(c) Cell culture media
(d) All of the following
Which of the following is true regarding animal cell culture technique
(a) Lactic acid is source of carbon
(b) Cells have high requirement of L-glutamine
(c) Cholin is necessary for cell adhesion and cytoskeleton
(d) All of the following
Which of the following is the structural fibre in cell culture system
(a) Collagen
(b) Elastin
(c) Fibronectin
(d) Both a and b
Optimum pH required for the growth of mammalian cells is
(a) 5.3-7.0
(b) 6.5-7.0
(c) 7.2-7.4
(d) 8.1-8.9
The optimum temperature of any cell or organ is called
(a) Critical temperature
(b) Threshold temperature
(c) Ceiling temperature
(d) None of the above
For culture of avian cells the optimum temperature requirement is
(a) 37 ̊C
(b) 40 ̊C
(c) 42 ̊C
(d) 35 ̊C
Which of the following is the oldest cell line
(a) Hela cell line
(b) Vero cell line
(c) CHO cell line
(d) BHK cell line
Which cell line is used for production of recombinant sex hormones
(a) BHK cell line
(b) Vero cell line
(c) Hela cell line
(d) CHO cell line
The ratio of CO2 : O2 used in cell culture system should be
(a) 1:5
(b) 1:13
(c) 1:19
(d) 1:25
Which of the following is most commonly used cell fusing agent
(a) PEG
(b) NaNO3
(c) Sendai virus
(d) Polyvinyl alcohal
Which of the following virus is used for cell fusion
(a) Sendai virus
(b) Herpes virus
(c) Myxovirus
(d) All of the following
Which of the following is easy and rapid method to interpret viability of cells in culture system
(a) Trypan blue dye exclusion
(b) Neutral red assay
(c) Fluorescein dye assay
(d) All of the following
Vero cell line is obtained from Kidney cells of
(a) African green monkey
(b) Chinese hamster
(c) Calf
(d) Swine

ANSWERS
1.(a) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(c) 7.(d) 8.(d) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11.(C) 12.(c) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(d) 16.(c) 17.(a) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20.(a)

Part-8

Embryo Technology

First mammal produced by IVF was
(a) Calf
(b) Mouse
(c) Rabbit
(d) Monkey
Most ideal method of oocyte collection from ovaries is
(a) Slicing of ovaries
(b) Follicle aspiration
(c) Follicle puncturing
(d) None of the above
Which of the following media is used for maturation of oocytes
(a) DMEM
(b) TCM-199
(c) Ham’s F-10
(d) Both b and c
Which of the following is not supplemented with in vitro maturation media
(a) Estradiol
(b) FSH
(c) LH
(d) Progesterone
Which of the following is the indicator of oocyte maturation
(a) Presence of polar body in PVS
(b) Cumulus expansion
(c) Germinal vesicle break down
(d) All of the above
Which of the following chemical is not used for oocyte maturation
(a) DMAP
(b) Calcium ionophore
(c) Caffeine
(d) Both a and b
Which technique holds promise in future for conservation of endangered species
(a) Intraspecies cloning techniques
(b) Interspecies cloning techniques
(c) IVF
(d) Both a and b
Large offspring syndrome is associated with
(a) IVF
(b) Cloning
(c) Both
(d) None
In cloning, donor somatic cells should be in which stage of cell cycle
(a) G1
(b) S
(c) G2
(d) G0
Which embryo stage is preferred for embryo transfer in cloning protocols
(a) Late blastocyst
(b) Early blastocyst
(c) Late morula
(d) Both b and c
Which of the following cloning technique renders zona pellucida intact
(a) HMC
(b) SCNT
(c) Both
(d) None
Which of the following is embryo sexing method
(a) HY antigens
(b) PCR
(c) G6PDH activity
(d) All of the following
Which of the following is transcriptional totipotent marker
(a) OCT4
(b) NANOG
(c) SOX2
(d) All of the following
In cloning protocols while performing ennucleation which chemical is used for relaxing cellular cytoskeleton
(a) Phytohaemagglutinin
(b) Cytochalasin B
(c) Pronase
(d) Heparin
Conducting a research trial on cloned animals is better than non-cloned animals due to
(a) Easy availability
(b) Absolute phenotypic control
(c) Absolute genotypic control
(d) Both b and c
Which of the following is the first transgenic animal
(a) Goat
(b) Rabbit
(c) Monkey
(d) Mice
Which of following is reprogramming enhancer used in cloned embryonic reconstruction
(a) TSA
(b) Heparin
(c) SAHA
(d) Both a and c
In HMC cloning technique which enzyme is commonly used for digesting zona pellucida
(a) Trypsin
(b) Pepsin
(c) Pronase
(d) Hyaluronidase
Which of the following species oocytes and embryos are highly susceptible to cryodamage
(a) Sheep
(b) Buffalo
(c) Swine
(d) Buffalo
In ICSI the sperm is injected in
(a) Nucleoplasm
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Perivitelline space
(d) None

ANSWERS
1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(d) 5.(d) 6.(c) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11.(b) 12.(d) 13.(d) 14.(b) 15.(d) 16.(d) 17.(d) 18.(c) 19.(c) 20.(b)

Veterinary BIOTECHNOLOGY question bank-1

Veterinary BIOTECHNOLOGY question bank-1

Veterinary BIOTECHNOLOGY

Part-2

Part-3

Environmental Biotechnology

Part-4

Basics of Gene structure and function